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Book 3 Reviews

Structures

11/12 to 19.1

1. What are the fuselage sections

5 parts. Nose (11/12), fwd (13 [22-38]), centre (15/21 [38-74]), Aft (18 [74-95]), tail(19)

2. How is the fuselage divided

2000/6000/7000 and GLARE (glaringly obvious that’s on the fuselage!) but CFRP from Fr 95 to120. Before Fr22 is all 2xxx ally

3. What are the types of Materials are used on the A380 fuselage skin

Aluminium for main and CFRP for upper (aft of frame 26).

4. What material is used to make the main deck crossbeam and the upper deck crossbeam

CFRP

5. What material for the centre wing box

GLARE, GRFP, CFRP, QFRP

6. How many composite materials are used in the A380

Upper deck crossbeams, skin aft of section 95, centre wing box, Rear Px bulkhead

7. Where is CFRP used

QFRP Quartz Fibre Reinforced Plastic

8. What is special about Radome

CFRP and Aluminium alloy for the tension strut

9. What material is used to make the aft pressure bulkhead

Titanium alloy

10. How is the aft pressure bulkhead connected to the skin

Fuselage skin fwd upper and shell FR22 to 38 (section13) , upper fwd from FR38 to 46 (section 15), aft upper skin FR 74 to 95 (section 18) (the rest is alloy except for CFRP FR95 to 120) <—— this isn’t what he said!!! so I might be wrong

11. Which part of the aircraft use GLARE

No

12. Is GLARE used in wing area

Tailcone, Flap Track, Eng Exhaust and landing gear bogie beams.

13. Where is titanium alloy used

Glass Laminate Aluminium Reinforced Epoxy - laminations of Glass Fibre and Aluminium

14. What is the material used in GLARE

Sandwich and Monolithic

15. What types of composite structure are used

Titanium Alloy

16. L/G bogie beams are made of

Pneumatics

A

1. Which CPIOM is responsible for Pneumatics

3

2. How many Apps in CPIOM A

EBAS PADS OHDS and optionally SCS

3. What are the Apps in CPIOM A

13/31/24/42

4. Which CPIOM-A EBAS for which ENG

EBAS

5. Which app controls the operation of eng bleed vlv, HP Bleed vlv and Fan Air Valve

32-48.5psi normal. (40psi nominal guarantee 30 at AGU inlet) 85psi is o/px

6. What is the pneumatic sys px and what is o/px

200degs

7. What is bleed Temperature regulated to

A window or door is open

8. What must be done before providing external or APU air

IP8 and HP6

9. What are the Trent bleed ports

IP4 and HP9

10. What are the GP7200 bleed ports

Fire resistant Dual-flapper non return valve. Prevents HP air going to IP stage

11. What type of valve is IP check Bleed Valve and what does it do

Fire resistant pneumatic px regulating SOV (PRSOV!!) Elec solenoid cont Pneumatically operated

12. What type of valve is the HP bleed valve

15psi upstream, 64psi downstream

13. What is the HP bleed valve operating Px

PRSOV butterfly type. Pneumatically operated, elec controlled. Isolates eng from bleed sys and regulates the px to the A/C.

14. What type of valve is the Bleed Valve and what does it do

15psi upstream

15. What is the bleed valve operating px

CPOIM-B, CPCS App, OCSMs (ACP to EPP), Outflow Valves

16. Auto Pressure Control is performed by which components

Can be pneumatically controlled as backup

17. What is bleed valve torque motor fails

60psi+temp < 245 or 45psi and temp >245

18. When is the bleed valve auto commanded closed

Butterfly valve, fully pneumatic, to protect precooler. Spring loaded open. Closes > 85degs and reopens < 55degs

19. What type of valve is the OPV and what is its main purpose

4 on a plate in pylon towards precooler. Pip (Intermediate Port x Trans [upstream of IP check valve so helps decide if HP or IP needed]). Pt (Bleed Transferred Px Trans [upstream of bleed vlv. Helps decide if HP or IP needed]). Pr (Bleed Regulated Px Trans [downstream of bleed vlv. Monitors OPV and px upstream of FCV]). P (Bleed diff px trans[Px across precooler. Helps know about reverse flow and bleed vlv pos])

20. How many Px transducers, What are they, and where

Pnue ops, elec cont. Spring load closed butterfly valve

21. What is the FAV and it normal condition

Dual sensor in Pylon

22. Where and what type are the Bleed Temp Sensors

200degs normally but 150 on request of ACS

23. What is the bleed sys Temp regulated to

Precooler, FAV, Bleed Temp sensors and EBAS

24. How is the Temp controlled

EBAS, Bleed Valves and Diff Px (P) across precooler compared across engines\

25. How is flow sharing done

FCV

26. How is flow sharing done if crossbleed valves are closed

Auto, and it splits L and R sides

27. What is the function of the cross bleed valve and its normal position

Open

28. What is the normal pos for bleed/APU isolation valves on GND with no air sources

Open

29. What is the normal pos for bleed/APU isolation valves on with APU as air source

All closed

30. What is the normal pos for bleed/APU isolation valves with eng running and no APU air

Cross bleeds Open

31. What is the normal pos for bleed/APU isolation valves with 1 ENG fail

ECB

32. Signals for the APU bleed valve for EBAS is from where

On GND goes to open (ALL the isolation valves go to open on GND)

33. When the APU is running and providing Bleed if the crossbreed valve is in auto what will be the state of the isolation valve

4 (L, C, R and APU)

34. How many isolation valves are controlled by PADS

It goes to the relay system

35. Signals of the cross bleed valve and also isolation valve from PADS app. Does it go directly to the crossbreed valve or to another system

The transfer Px sensor and the pressure sensor…. WTF!!!

36. What is the sensor that determines the operation of the eng bleed valve

By a rod

37. How is the Fan Air Valve operated

2 units and 4 channels;

38. How many OHDU and how many channels of the OHDU monitor are there

38. 2 more pre cargo bay if cargo heat is added to A/C at manufacture

39. How many OHDS det loops are there

2 loops of 19. Loop A (1) and Loop B(2)

40. How are they arranged

218 total

41. How many sensors

No 2

42. Which OHPU channel connects to loop B

EBAS

43. Bleed valve control signals come from

CPIOM-B, EBAS App

44. Which LRU controls HP Bleed valve

Regulated Pressure transducer (Pr). Also closes for over-temp/reverse flow

45. Which Px signals are used to operate Bleed valve

EBAS, uses Pre-cooler Differential Px Transducer to sense and closes Bleed Valve

46. Engine reverse-flow protection is provided by which CPIOM-A App

OHDU. 1=Loop A, 2=Loop B

47. Which LRU provides leak detection signal to CPIOM

Air Conditioning

2 and 3 <—— page 226

1. Which FCVs provides direct hot air to TAPRV

Closed

2. When pilot select RAM Air Switch to open and then selects ditching what will the Ram air inlets position be

TBV (and to support TCV)

3. Which Valve prevents ice formation across condenser

Closed

4. When Eng Fire P/B selected what position is the FCV

The pack reset CB

5. How do you reset the AGS

1 (The other is Hot Stby)

6. How many FDAC channels control FCV ops

Pack reset sw. (does AGS app at same time)

7. How do you reset FDAC

Door unlocked on GND with ENG on. Ditching, Pack sw off

8. When are FCV commanded closed

Controls the VCM and heating and ventilation (p.416 412 402 386)

9. What does the VCS App control

Open( no idea why or how) if one of the TAPRV is shut you only have air from one FCV so the two TASOV open to link the operating flow to the other 2 quadrants of the trim air manifold

10. When one of the TAPRV is closed what is the position of the 2 TASOV

Shut off function and also balance AGU flow between halves

11. What do FCVs do

Non Pressurised area (Only TASOV and TAV in pressurised area)

12. Location of TACV or TAPRV. Pressurised area or non pressurised area

Stepper motor

13. What type of motor operates TAV

Fwd Cargo L/H side (Triangle )

14. TADD Location

Just 1

15. How many TADD are there

OVERHEAT COND FANS RESET button

16. How do you reset the R/H LP recirc fan

VCS via VCM

17. How does the ORVD operate in auto

2 (3 for -900)

18. How many ORVD

Normal from ACP(Automatic Control Partition) Backup from DPSM (Differential Pressure Sensor Module)

19. When pressure is controlled by SOPP which air signals will be used

3 EPP. (The partitions are Automatic Control Partition (ACP), the Safety and Override Partition (SOP) and the Emergency Pressurization Partition (EPP) )

20. Which partition of OCSM has direct control of the Outflow valve

CPIOM-B, AGS App, calculates Flow Demand

21. Which App controls the AGU

Mixer Unit

22. When LP ground air connected, where does it feed into

Controls hot Bleed air to AGUs. 1st Ozone Conv then FSV (flow sensing Venturi) and then FCV.

23. Describe the flow control and monitoring system

Senses P, Delta P and T. Senses AGU HX clogging

24. What does the Flow sensing Venturi do

4 HP fans, 8 HEPA Filters (+2 optional)

25. HP Recirculation Sys has how many Fans/Filters

CPIOM-B, VCS App and VCM Fwd (left fans) and Aft (right fans)

26. Control of recirculation sys is by

2 RAI on belly if both AGUS fail. Air flows directly to mixer unit. P/B on AIR panel activates

27. Describe RAM air sys

1 motor per door, 2 doors per AGU. RAID (inlet) is 1 door, 2 motors

28. How many motors are on each Ram Air Outlet Door (ROAD)

To prevent freezing of condenser and provides assistance to TCV if full open and mixer temp too low.

29. When does Turbine Bypass Valve (TBV) operate

In each wing root 1 per AGU

30. Where are the FDACs located

They control their onside FCV (has switches). They have 2 channels 1 active 1 hot stby.

31. Describe the FADEC

B1 and B3 for LH, B2 and B4 for RH

32. Which CPIOMs calculate the Flow for which AGUs

Open to provide Trim Air to the other 2 quadrants normally served by the closed TAPRV

33. When one TAPRV is closed, what is the position of the TASOV

Hot Air Valves. 2 of them

34. What are TAPRV also know as and how many

16. 8 on top (2 spare) and 5 on each side

35. How many trim air zones are there and how are they on the mixer

Average Px for HP recirc system command

36. What are the sensors in the Mixer for

9

37. How many LP fans

As son as air is dry enough at altitude

38. When do Altitude Valves open

FCV 2 and 3, via TAPRVs

39. Which FCV supply Trim Air

VCS in CPIOM-B talks to 2 VCMs via CAN Bus

40. Where is the VCS and what does it talk to and how

B1+3 LH B2+4 RH

41. Which CPIOM-B does what for VCS

FWD LH, AFT RH

42. How are the VCM arranged

OVERHEAT COND FANS RESET P/B

43. How are the fans reset

Trim Air Drive Device (TADD) In Fwd Cargo, Left Triangle (sidewall)

44. What is the electronic controller for Trim Air

CPOIM-B, VCS App, and VCM Fwd and Aft

45. Control of CAX is from

VCM Aft (they are in the aft bulkhead)

46. ORVD signals are sent to which LRU

CPOIM-B, CPCS App, OCSMs (ACP to EPP), Outflow Valves

47. Auto Pressure Control is performed by which components

ECAM SD “CAB PRESS” page

48. Where can you check outflow valve operation

To supply cold air from the mixer unit to cool the Fwd Cargo

49. What is the function of the Cold Air Valve (CAV) in the Fwd Cargo Vent sys

VCM Fwd

50. Who controls the CAV

CPIOM-B, using VCS App, VCM Fwd and TCS App, TADD for trim Trim.

51. Who controls the Fwd Cargo Vent sys

2. On the rear Px Bucket

52. Where are the NRV and how many

Differential Px Sensor Mod. Backup on aft Bulkhead using ADIRS and SNS

53. Where and what is DPSM

Via an In-Line Duct Heater that heats LP Recirc Manifold Air, controlled by CPIOM-B, VCS App, VCM Aft Back-up.

54. How is Heating provided in the Bulk Cargo

The modulation of 5 bleed air valves and 3 ram air doors

55. How is temp controlled in each AGU

2 TBV (bypasses 1st stage to prevent icing), TCV, AV( increase ventilation above 29000ft bypassing 1st stage)

56. Describe the bleed air bypass set

9 1Pr HX, 2 Comp Out, 1 S HX, 2 Condenser, 2 ACM discharge, 1 mixer. (1 sensor = 2 elements, 2 sensors = 1 element)

57. How many sensors monitor the Temp

Outflow valve (and Sensing) Modules.

58. What are the OC(S)Ms

ACS (auto control sys), ACP (auto control partition), SOP (Safety Overide Partition)

59. How are OC(S)Ms divided

FWD and AFT Cargo door area.

60. Where are OC(S)Ms

OCSMs are 2 and 4 they have 2 ports extra sensor OCM are 1 and 3

61. Which are OCSMs and which are OSMs

VCM fwd was the answer maybe

62. Which module controls the CAV(Cold Air Valve)

CPIOM B VSC App

63. Bulk cargo extraction system is controlled by which CPIOM

VCM AFT

64. Bulk cargo extraction system is controlled by which Module

LP air manifold.

65. Air supply to duct heater in the bulk cargo is from the

(On ground, during static or low speed operation, an additional inlet flap in the bottom of the belly fairing and a fan assembly are needed to provide sufficient airflow to the condenser. The Ram Air Channel Actuator (RACA) opens this ground air inlet flap in the air channel and the fan assembly, consisting of two fans, draws the ambient air through each condenser.)

66. When does the inlet RACA SCSC open

With Nitrogen. Individual charging of accumulators with service lines, vent line as well to remove px .

67. SCSC accumulator service

Galden. Own service fill line before pump

68. What is the fluid used in SCSC

Controller behind accumulator in the belly fairing.

69. SCSC location

CPIOM A

70. CPIOM that controls SCSC

Bulk Cargo Heater Switch ( B2 & B4 VCS app controls can bus via VCM AFT)

71. How do you cut off the heater for the bulk cargo

COOL G p/b sw on vent panel and SCS reset switches.

72. Reset switch for SCSC is

The overboard and inboard valves.

73. Air extraction for the Avionic ventilation is by which valve

When Flow or Temp is low (CED sensor)

74. When does the backup valve operate in the Avionic ventilation

Pneumatic air

75. In unpressurised areas the turbofan needs what to run

FDAC. 1 —> L. 2 —> R.

76. Turbofan Supply Valve (TSV) is controlled by

VCM AFT

77. Tail cone area fan operation is by

p/b AV EXTRACT to OVRD.

78. Ref extraction system What do flt crew do in smoke situation in avionics compartment

AVS

79. Avionic ventilation the extract system is controlled by which App in CPIOM B

Blowing(LH and RH. Each has a filter and a fan) and Extraction( a fan, overboard valve and inboard valve)

80. What are the sub-systems of the Avionics Equipment Vent sys and what is in each

AVS in CPIOM B3+4

81. What controls and monitors Blowing and Extraction system

Optional. Uses 2 Ground Cooling units containing coolant from SCS (CPIOM-A)

82. What is the Avionics Equipment Ground Cooling

Maint panel

83. Where is Avionics Equipment Ground Cooling switched on

AVS overboard vlv not open on ground.

84. What triggers the Ground horn

4 EBAS OHDS SCS PADS!

85. How many apps in CPIOM A

CPIOM B (AGS)

86. The app that controls the AGU’s is in

4 HP fans total and 9 LP’s throughout U/D (he said 8 but 9 (with 10 as an option) is what I think too)

87. How many RECIRC fans are there

Open

88. if a TAPRV fails what will be the position of the TASOV

in the FWD cargo

89. Location of TADD is

Bulk CC Extraction isolation valve, Bulk CC supply isolation valve and bulk CC and T shape Isolation Valve

90. How many isolation valve for the bulk cargo system

VCM AFT

91. Duct heater control by which Module

VCS reset 1 and 2

92. Reset of VCS app is by

2 AFT CC Supply VLV’s (trim air) and you have the 1 shared extract bulk cargo fan isolation valve. And you have the 1 Bulk and ‘T’ shape isolation valve. So four valves all together I'm not counting the dedicated Bulk supply valve from HEATER. So 4 in total for the sys. 3 supply isolation valves if they want that ! and only 1 Bulk extraction valve that every fucker shares.

93. Aft cargo ventilation system how many isolation valves

2 supply valve the post Heater supply/iso and the T shape supply/iso . plus the share Extract fan iso.

94. Bulk cargo sys is

in upper avionics.

95. Where is the EEPDC located

partially open

96. What is the overboard valve position for dispatch

Removes heat and fumes from unpressurised area using external air. Uses piccolo tubes, a turbofan, a turbofan supply valve and 2 check valves. The belly is done by RAM air in flight

97. Descrive Unpressurised Compartment Ventilation

Bleed air

98. How are turbo fans powered

Through 7 outlets

99. Where is air dumped

Ice and Rain

both detectors go to AICU 1 and AICU 2

1. Ice and rain what LRU sends signals from ice detectors to FWS

CHA, CHB and 115V Power board.

2. Describe AICU

In ENG order 1/2/3/4 its AICU 2/1/2/1. Mon is B/B/A/A and Con is A/A/B/B

3. How are the AICU COM/MON split for ENG

1A=outer valves CON, 2A=inner valves CON. 1B+2B MON inner/outer valves.

4. How are the AICU COM/MON split for WAI

1B does capt windows wiper CON and MON, 2B does FO

5. How are the AICU COM/MON split for pilots

A429

6. How does AICU communicate

Outboard Engines, via both WAIV. Inboard Engines can be used as alternate via X-Bleed ducting

7. Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) is normally provided with air from

All 4 get signal for solenoid valve. The pressure (from inner or outer as is available) is regulated to 22.5psi

8. How do the WAI valves work

Solenoid activated, pneumatically operated pressure regulated shut off valves

9. What is the WAI type

The system is inhibited on GND but maybe tested for max 30s

10. How is it tested

28VDC for AICU, 115VAC for Heater elements

11. What is the power requirements for Cockpit Window Heating

AICU’s

12. What LRU deals with Ice and Rain

Outboard engines by outer antice valves. Alternate is 2 and 3 via inner antice valves

13. In normal conditions which engine is connected to slat 4 WAI

CYClone nozzle

14. Jet effect into nose cowl section is by what technology

AICU to vlv solenoid then HP3 muscle air to Close

15. RR EAI S/o vlv command

regulate the air to 74 psi (Alliance Engine is 100 psi)

16. Function of the RAIV on the RR engine Is to

All of them do. 1st is taken for regulation then 2 if 1 fails. Then 3 if 2 fails

17. Which windows in the cockpit that have 3 sensors

No1 windscreen=1, No2 and sliding is 3.

18. How many HEATER films per window

2 power levels on the windscreen(35W/70W) and 1 level for the sliding and fixed(20W).

19. How many heating power levels and on what windows

Ice Protection Control Units/ Data units. IPCUs control, IPDUs have the config

20. What are IPCUs and IPDUs

32

21. How many heating circuits per IPCU

Total 5 IPCU’s (ipdu’s are married) 3 for Water ice protect. And 2 for floor panel heating.

22. How many IPCU’s and IPDU’s

Via DEU Bs

23. How do IPCUs communicate with FAPs etc

it is SPDB 7 and 8 115vac and 28vdc.

24. What is the power supply to the IPCU’s

7 and 8 in fwd and aft cargo others throughout MD.

25. Location of the SPDB’s

Ant icing not Deicing

26. What kind of system is the Pot and waste water Icing prot

Where icing is likely. NOT on UD

27. Where is Waste water Ice Protection fitted

1,2,4,5 have 1 panel 2 elements. The rest have 2 panels 1 element (Aligns with the side pack loactions)

28. How is Floor heating arranged

Fwd and Aft Cargo door area

29. Where are the IPCUs

37-40degs. O/heat = 35-60. Locks to OFF if gets to 80

30. What temp does FPH run at and o/heat at

When power is off and temp below 50degs

31. When does the FPH reset

32.

Hydraulics

Manually with valve on reservoir or electrically via remote depressurisation switch on ground service panel

1. How can you depressurise the Hydraulic reservoirs

5000 psi

2. Normal operating pressure for Hydraulic sys

Case Drain return line to the reservoir

3. Which hydraulic line is connected to the Air/Hydraulic Heat Exchanger

HSMU, using Fan Isolation Valve

4. How is Air/Hydraulic Heat Exchanger controlled

EDPs HYD panel, EMPs GND HYD panel

5. How are EDPs and EMPs controlled

Only on Ground and only if engines are off on the EMP side

6. When can EMPs and EDPs run at same time

HSMU

7. What manages the HYD sys

EMP A green

8. Which pump is on GND SRVC bus

Alternates A and B with flight number

9. How is EMP selected

1 on each circuit upstream of the HP belly fairing manifold

10. Where are the Accumulators

It is sent away for helium replenishment

11. How is it serviced

They have electrical and mechanical indicators. The returns have bypass valves too.

12. Describe the HP return and the case drain filters

GSP reservoir filling filter

13. Which filter is not electrical monitored

Class 4. Generic alert triggered if it is over 700 Fh

14. What fault class is a clogged filter

Can be done individually on GND from ring pull. In air it is both EDPs for the button. Needs maint action to re engage the clutch

15. describe EDP declutching

The HSMU fro Cargo doors or BLG steering

16. What starts the EMPs automatically on GND

On SD HYD page. Green triangle above circuit. Amber if low px or fault

17. How can you see auto running EMP on FD

HP Belly fairing Manifold

18. Where are the Px sensors

SD HYD page or GSP

19. Where can you see the pressure

Below 2900. Below 200 is 0

20. What is Low Hyd px

50psi from HP stage, from bleed air, from GSP

21. What is the reservoir air px and how is it pressurised

RASC (reservoir air supply cooler) to less than 110degs to prevent fluid degradation

22. How is the air cooled

50PSi supplied from reservoir to booster stage. 220psi to main pump. 5080 to 2 manifold in each pylon then through filters and then to A/C

23. Describe the makeup of the EDP

6010psi

24. When does over pressure valve open

115V 400HZ (NOT Freq wild!)

25. EMP power supply

2900psi or 5080psi depending on demand

26. What is the HYD px for EMPs

Auxiliary pump can be used to open the CARGO doors

27. What if green pump is fucked

Inner pylons

28. Where are the ground Hydraulic connections

No 5 Flap track fairing on case drain lines

29. Where are the AIR HYD HX

Hyd motor controlled by HSMU (has a leakage collection bottle too)

30. How does the fan work

Anytime there is Hyd power but it is not energised off.(no power or HSMU fail etc etc) (Has a bypass to avoid over cooling)

31. When will the fan run

A FUEL HYD HX. Uses feed tank fuel. Located in Outer pylon. Hyd always runs through this. Fuel only does when required.

32. What is a backup for AIR HYD HX

Pressure Maintaining valve keeps px up and so prevents boiling or back flow.

33. What stops fuel getting too hot

Doors

Pitch Attitude Sensor (PAS) in upper AV bay sends signal to LDC

1. What component controls MD1 slide extension deployment

Mechanical Coding Pins, specific order to that location

2. How does the slide packboard prevent installation in the incorrect location

Door Sill latches NOT in the UP position

3. What prevents Cargo Door closing

It is powered from DC1 and/or 2 so always when A/C powered!!

4. When is the CPDLS active

3 with mechanical deadbolt

5. How many locks on CDDLS

5s

6. How long is emergency opening

De-arrest actuator

7. What operates first on door closing

M1,2,4,5. All the rest have fuselage except Dr3 that are in the fairings

8. Which doors have slides

1 LDC (with fan), 3 actuators and 9 prox sensors.

9. What components does each door have

3 short beeps

10. What is the sound for initial door moving

60kts to 24/29000 ft

11. When does the flight lock work

A wake switch uses batteries in LDC

12. How can you operate door without power

1 door open/close 8hrs

13. How long does LDC batt last

DSMCU

14. What monitors the cargo doors

10s

15. How long does the pump run after releasing switch

Press the opposite button (up/down) within 5s

16. How do you operate half speed for cart lift

30s. Your trunk door is open

17. How long do ‘LIFT CALL” messages stay and what does it mean

The lift is at its weight limit. 3 times and it becomes a jamming

18. What does “trailing”mean

Green lt on. Not used for 30s. All doors closed. Push ok for min 3s. It will return to normal if no maint ops for 10 mins

19. How do you access maint mode

STOP button

20. How do you reset cart lift faults

The lift returns to main deck if no doors opened. 20s in cruise, 120s on GND. If a door is opened the timer starts after doors closed again

21. What is automatic lift down

A gas generator, coolant reservoir(carbon dioxide and nitrogen) and a control valve

22. What makes up a slide inflation bottle

Closed circuit sensed by LDC is good the bottle is there and pressurised.

23. How does the readiness indicator work

Has a primary gas bleed valve. It releases the pressure if slide extension not required.

24. What is different about dr M1

Using its own DEPS (door emergency power supply)

25. How does LDC operate doors and slides independently

29degs

26. What angle does the door handle buzzer sound if slide is armed

During ditching. The buzzer and white light are inhibited too

27. When are DR1 and DR3 slides/extensions inhibited