Book2Qs.txt

1. What is the function of the CPIOM Es?
a. The Energy Applications
b. The Air Conditioning Applications
c. The Fuel Applications

a. The Energy Applications

2. What is the cockpit indication for the loss of a CPIOM?
a. The CPIOM failure will be indicated to the flight crew
b. Only the loss of the hosted applications is indicated
c. Both CPIOM and Hosted application loss are indicated

b. Only the loss of the hosted applications is indicated

3. What can be said about the AFDX Switches?
a. They a fully interchangeable, but may need software reconfiguration
b. They a fully interchangeable, without any software reconfiguration
c. They a fully interchangeable, but will need pin programming

a. They a fully interchangeable, but may need software reconfiguration

4. What happens if a single IOM failure (Class 4 Fault) is not rectified within 1000 Flight Hours?
a. It will become a Class 1 Level 1 Fault
b. It will become a Class 2 Level 1 Fault
c. It will become a Class 3 Level 1 Fault

a. It will become a Class 1 Level 1 Fault

What happens if a single IOM failure (Class 4 Fault) is not rectified within 1000 Flight Hours

5. Which AFDX switches are allocated to Network A?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,9

c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,9

6. What is the effect of a single AFDX cable failure?
a. Class 1 failure and must be rectified before next flight
b. Class 1 Level 2 failure but is time limited to 500 Flight Hours
c. Class 4 failure but is time limited to 1000 Flight Hours

c. Class 4 failure but is time limited to 1000 Flight Hours

NSS and OIS

7. The NSS is split into three domains, what are they?
a. Avionics, Flight Controls, Communications & Cabin
b. Avionics, Flight Operations, Communications & Cabin
c. Avionics, Flight Operations, Communications & Lighting

b. Avionics, Flight Operations, Communications & Cabin

8. Which of the following is NOT possible with the PMAT?
a. ANY BITE TESTING
b. BITE TEST WITH CAUTION
c. ANY SOFTWARE LOADING

b. BITE TEST WITH CAUTION

9. What is the function of the Terminal Processor Units (TPUs)?
a. To convert Laptop Data into DVI Data for the ANSUs
b. To convert Laptop Data into ARINC Data for the OlTs
c. To convert Laptop Data into DVI Data for the OITs

c. To convert Laptop Data into DVI Data for the OITs

10. When does automatic REPLICATION of the ANSU-OPS Databases take place?
a. When the difference between the ANSU-OPS databases is less than 2GB
b. When the difference between the ANSU-OPS databases is less than 3GB
c. When the difference between the ANSU-OPS databases is less than 4GB

a. When the difference between the ANSU-OPS databases is less than 2GB

11. When loading new Avionic Domain software, where is the new software normally loaded to?
a. To the ANSU-OPS Repository
b. To the SIRU Repository
c. To the ARU-OPS Repository

a. To the ANSU-OPS Repository

When loading new Avionic Domain software, where is the new software normally loaded to

12. Where is the operating system for the Terminal Processor Units (TP) stored?
a. In the ANSU-AFMR
b. In the ARU-AFMR
c. In the TPUs

b. In the ARU-AFMR

OMS

13. Which domains are monitored by the Right OMS Functions?
a. AVIONICS and COMMS & CABIN Domains
b. FLIGHT OPS and COMMS & CABIN Domains
c. FLIGHT OPS and AVIONICS Domains

b. FLIGHT OPS and COMMS & CABIN Domains

14. What is indicated by a CLASS 1 Failure?
a. Any detected failure generating a cabin effect
b. This class of failure is no longer used
c. Any detected failure generating a flight deck effect

c. Any detected failure generating a flight deck effect

15. The STANDARD A BITE only effects which type of subscribers?
a. ARINC 429 subscribers
b. AFDX subscribers
c. ARINC 629

a. ARINC 429 subscribers

16. On a STANDARD B BITE fault code, what is indicated by the Middle Letter?
a. It indicates the failed system
b. It indicates the type of event
c. It indicates the failure class

b. It indicates the type of event

17. With all engines running, when does CMS Data Recording STOP?
a. When CAS is lower than 100 Kts for more than 150 seconds
b. When CAS is lower than 80 Kts for more than 120 seconds
c. When CAS is lower than 80 Kts for more than 150 seconds

c. When CAS is lower than 80 Kts for more than 150 seconds

18. Which Human Machine Interfaces are used to control the DLCS?
a. The OITs, OMT, PMAT and Printer 2 (for maintenance reports)
b. The OlTs, OMT, PMAT and the FAPs
c. The OITs. OMT. PMAT and Printer 1 (for maintenance reports)

c. The OITs. OMT. PMAT and Printer 1 (for maintenance reports)

INDICATING & RECORDING

19. How are the Integrated Control Panels identified?
a. By the use of the letters VU
b. By the use of the letters VI
c. By the use of the letters VM

c. By the use of the letters VM

20. In the event of a complete ADCN failure, how do the EFIS DUs receive data?
a. Via the backup connection direct from the ADIRUs
b. Via the backup connection direct from the FWS
c. Via the backup connection direct from the CPOIMs

a. Via the backup connection direct from the ADIRUs

21. What happens in the event of the Captains PFD failure?
a. An automatic transfer to the System Display will occur
b. An manual transfer to the Captains ND will be required
c. An automatic transfer to the Captains ND will occur

c. An automatic transfer to the Captains ND will occur

22. What happens in the event of an EWD failure?
a. An automatic transfer to the First Officers ND will occur
b. An manual transfer to the First Officers ND will be required
c. An automatic transfer to the System Display will occur

c. An automatic transfer to the System Display will occur

23. Which of the items below could be considered as a SECONDARY Failure?
a. Green Hydraulic System Failure
b. A Single ADIRU Failure
c. Spoiler 2, 4, 6. 8 Failure

c. Spoiler 2, 4, 6. 8 Failure

24. What would be the indications of a LEVEL 3 ALERT Activation?
a. CRC with Flashing Master Warning Attention Getters
b. A Single Chime with Illuminated Master Caution Attention Getters
c. An Amber Caution on the EWD, with no attention getters

a. CRC with Flashing Master Warning Attention Getters

25. What would be the indications of a LEVEL 1 ALERT Activation?
a. CRC with Flashing Master Warning Attention Getters
b. A Single Chime with Illuminated Master Caution Attention Getters
c. An Amber Caution on the EWD, with no attention getters

c. An Amber Caution on the EWD, with no attention getters

26. With no reconfigurations, which of the cockpit Display Units can be used to display Video Information from the ETACs for example?
a. Two PFDs, Two NDs, and the EWD
b. Two NDs, EWD and the SD
c. Two PFDs, Two NDs, and the SD

c. Two PFDs, Two NDs, and the SD

With no reconfigurations, which of the cockpit Display Units can be used to display Video Information from the ETACs for example

27. How long does the FDR continue to record after last engine shut down?
a. 5 Minutes
b. 10 Minutes
c. 15 Minutes

a. 5 Minutes

ELECTRICAL POWER

28. What is the rated output of the VFGs?
a. 250 KVA, 115 VAC, 3 Phase
b. 200 KVA, 115 VAC, 3 Phase
c. 150 KVA, 115 VAC, 3 Phase

c. 150 KVA, 115 VAC, 3 Phase

29. Which is the Back Up supply for the AC ESS BUS?
a. AC BUS 1
b. AC BUS 3
c. AC BUS 4

c. AC BUS 4

30. Which Generator and Ground Power Control Units control the APU Generators?
a. GGPCU 5 and 6
b. GGPCU 1 and 4
c. GGPCU 2 and 3

a. GGPCU 5 and 6

31. What is the electrical configuration, with only the APU Generators supplying the aircraft?
a. APU GEN A supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 4
b. APU GEN A supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
c. APU GEN A supplies AC BUS 2 and AC BUS 3

b. APU GEN A supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2

What is the electrical configuration, with only the APU Generators supplying the aircraft

32. When on Battery Power Only, which batteries are in Parallel?
a. BAT 1 and BAT 2
b. BAT 1 and BAT ESS
c. BAT 2 and BAT ESS

b. BAT 1 and BAT ESS

33. Which AC Buses are supplied from the EMERG GENERATOR?
a. AC ESS BUS and AC BUS 1
b. AC ESS BUS and STATIC INV BUS
c. AC ESS BUS and AC EMER BUS

c. AC ESS BUS and AC EMER BUS

34. What is the recommended sequence to energise the aircraft with all four EXT PWR sources available?
a. EXT 1, EXT 2, EXT 3, EXT 4
b. EXT 1. EXT 3. EXT 2. EXT 4
c. EXT 2. EXT 3. EXT 1. EXT 4

c. EXT 2. EXT 3. EXT 1. EXT 4

What is the recommended sequence to energise the aircraft with all four EXT PWR sources available

35. What is the source priority for AC BUS 3?
a. VFG 3, EXT 3, APU B, APU A, VFG 2. EXT 2, VFG 4, EXT 4
b. VFG 3, EXT 3, APU B, APU A, VFG 4, EXT 4, VFG 2, EXT 2
c. VFG 3, EXT 3, APU B, APU A, VFG 1, EXT 1, VFG 4, EXT 4

b. VFG 3, EXT 3, APU B, APU A, VFG 4, EXT 4, VFG 2, EXT 2

36. With EXT 2 and 3 and both APU generators ON, what is the positions of BTC 1 to 6 and the SIC?
a. BTC 1 and 4 CLOSED, the rest are OPEN
b. BTC 1 to 4 CLOSED, the SIC is OPEN
c. BTC 1 to 6 CLOSED, the SIC is OPEN

a. BTC 1 and 4 CLOSED, the rest are OPEN

With EXT 2 and 3 and both APU generators ON, what is the positions of BTC 1 to 6 and the SIC

37. With the VFGs operating, how are the GGPCUs powered?
a. Direct from the Main AC BUS the VFG is supplying
b. By the AC ESS BUS network
c. By their own VFG permanent Magnet Generators

c. By their own VFG permanent Magnet Generators

38. What is the purpose of the Secondary Electrical Power Distribution Centre?
a. To supply high power commercial load (Over 15A)
b. To supply low power commercial loads (Up to 15A)
c. To supply low power technical loads (Up to 15A)

c. To supply low power technical loads (Up to 15A)

39. What is required to Re-Stow the RAT?
a. Electrical power and the Green Hydraulic System
b. Electrical power and the Yellow Hydraulic System
c. Electrical power Only

a. Electrical power and the Green Hydraulic System

Back to Home

IMA and ADCN

NSS and OIS

OMS

INDICATING & RECORDING

ELECTRICAL POWER