Book4Qs.txt

1. How are the potable water tanks pressurised in flight?
a. From the engine bleed air system
b. From two compressors that run simultaneously
c. From two compressors that operate alternatively

b. From two compressors that run simultaneously

2. Above 16000 Feet, what is used to move toilet waste to the waste storage tanks?
a. Cabin Differential Pressure
b. The Vacuum Pumps
c. Toilet Flush Pumps

a. Cabin Differential Pressure

3. When is the Auto Flush Function available?
a. In flight or on the ground
b. In flight only
c. On the ground only

c. On the ground only

LANDING GEAR

4. Which of the Body Landing Gear Doors are hydraulically operated?
a. The Inner Centre and Outer doors
b. The Inner Centre and Auxiliary doors
c. The Inner Auxiliary and Outer doors

a. The Inner Centre and Outer doors

5. When does the Oleo Pressure Monitoring System do a check of the landing gear pressures?
a. In the take-off phase when all landing gears are downlocked
b. In the approach phase when all landing gears are downlocked
c. In the approach phase when all landing gears are uplocked

b. In the approach phase when all landing gears are downlocked

6. How many Proximity Sensors are installed on the Body Landing Gear?
a. Seven in total
b. Nine in total
c. Eleven in total

c. Eleven in total

7. Which hydraulic systems are used for the Landing Gear Extension/Retraction System?
a. Yellow for the Nose and Wing Gears, Green for the Body Gear
b. Green for the Nose and Wing Gears, Yellow for the Body Gear
c. Green for the Nose and Body Gears, Yellow for the Wing Gear

b. Green for the Nose and Wing Gears, Yellow for the Body Gear

8. Which of the following is correct regarding the Gear and Door Uplocks?
a. Each has three unlock actuators and two proximity sensors
b. Each has three unlock actuators and three proximity sensors
c. Each has two unlock actuators and two proximity sensors

a. Each has three unlock actuators and two proximity sensors

9. Which CPIOM Gs are the processing elements for Side 1 of the Landing Gear Control and Indicating System?
a. CPIOM-G 2 and 3
b. CPIOM-G 2 and 4
c. CPIOM-G 1 and 3

c. CPIOM-G 1 and 3

10. In the free fall extension system, how many Vent and Cut-Out Valves are there?
a. Five Cut-Out Valves and Three Vent Valves
b. Three Cut-Out Valves and Five Vent Valves
c. Three Cut-Out Valves and Three Vent Valves

b. Three Cut-Out Valves and Five Vent Valves

11. During a free fall extension cycle, what happens from 0 to 7 seconds?
a. The vent valve actuators are energised
b. The up locks are released
c. The cut-out valve actuators are energised

c. The cut-out valve actuators are energised

12. How are each of the Vent and Cut-Out Valves operated?
a. By a single DC brushless motor
b. By two DC brushless electric motors
c. By three DC brushless electric motors

b. By two DC brushless electric motors

13. How is the Ground Door Opening System controlled?
a. Hydraulically
b. Pneumatically
c. Electrically

c. Electrically

14. On the SD WHEELS Page, when is the Amber "L/G CTL" message shown?
a. When the landing gear is not in the selected position
b. When a failure has occurred in the gear extension cycle
c. When a failure has occurred in the gear retraction cycle

a. When the landing gear is not in the selected position

15. During a landing gear extension cycle, when does the BLG Centre door close?
a. When the BLG is in the TRAIL position
b. When the BLG is in the DIP position
c. As soon as the BLG is locked down

b. When the BLG is in the DIP position

WHEELS & BRAKES

16. Which wheels have brake installed on them?
a. All WLG Wheels and the Centre and Rear wheels of each BLG
b. All WLG Wheels and the Centre and Front wheels of each BLG
c. All WLG Wheels and the Rear and Front wheels of each BLG

b. All WLG Wheels and the Centre and Front wheels of each BLG

17. What type of valve is the Normal Brake Selector Valve (NBSELV)?
a. A Modulating Valve
b. A Pressure regulating Valve
c. An Isolation Valve

c. An Isolation Valve

18. When does Retraction Braking occur?
a. As soon as the NLG is unlocked during the retraction cycle
b. As soon as all landing gear shock absorbers are fully extended
c. When the landing gear is selected up

c. When the landing gear is selected up

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

19. How is the NWS normally operated?
a. From the Yellow Hydraulic System
b. From the Green Hydraulic System
c. From the LEHGS

b. From the Green Hydraulic System

20. When is the BLG Steering system available?
a. If the NWS angle is greater than 40 degrees and speed is less than 50 Knots
b. If the NWS angle is greater than 30 degrees and speed is less than 40 Knots
c. If the NWS angle is greater than 20 degrees and speed is less than 30 Knots

c. If the NWS angle is greater than 20 degrees and speed is less than 30 Knots

21. How is the NWS operated in Alternate Mode?
a. From the Yellow Hydraulic System
b. From the Green Hydraulic System
c. From the LEHGS

c. From the LEHGS

FLIGHT CONTROLS

22. In total, how many accelerometer and rate gyro units are installed to provide information to the PRIMs?
a. Sixteen are installed
b. Twenty are installed
c. Twenty-Four are installed

b. Twenty are installed

23. What is the makeup of PRIM 1?
a. Two LRUs called Flight Control and Guidance Units 1A and 1B
b. A single RU containing two channels called PRIM 1A and 1B
c. Two LRUs called Primary 1A and Primary 1B

a. Two LRUs called Flight Control and Guidance Units 1A and 1B

24. Which primary flight control surfaces have conventional servo controls installed?
a. The Elevators, Ailerons and Rudder
b. The Elevators, Rudder and some Spoilers
c. The Elevators, Ailerons and some Spoilers

c. The Elevators, Ailerons and some Spoilers

25. What are the operating modes for the conventional Spoiler servo controls?
a. Hydraulic, Retracted, Blocking and Maintenance
b. Hydraulic, Retracted, Locked and Maintenance
c. Electric, Retracted, Blocking and Maintenance

a. Hydraulic, Retracted, Blocking and Maintenance

26. Which Ailerons have Electro-Hydrostatic Actuators fitted to them?
a. The INBD and OUTBD
b. The INBD and MIDBD
c. The OUTBD and MIDB

b. The INBD and MIDBD

27. In flight, when will a Rudder Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA) go from the Hydraulic Active Mode to Electrical Active Mode?
a. When the hydraulic supply is no longer available to both EBHAs on the same rudder
b. When the hydraulic supply is no longer available to one EBHA on the same rudder
c. When the electrical supplies are available to both EBHAs on the same rudder

a. When the hydraulic supply is no longer available to both EBHAs on the same rudder

In flight, when will a Rudder Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA) go from the Hydraulic Active Mode to Electrical Active Mode

28. When will a spoiler Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA) go to Blocking Mode?
a. Only if the Electrical power fails
b. Only if the Hydraulic power fails
c. If both Electrical and Hydraulic power fails

c. If both Electrical and Hydraulic power fails

29. In normal operation, how is the THS driven?
a. The Yellow Hydraulic Motor is active, and the Green Hydraulic Motor is in Standby
b. The Green and Yellow Hydraulic motors are both active at the same time
c. The Green Hydraulic Motor is active, and the Yellow Hydraulic Motor is in Standby

c. The Green Hydraulic Motor is active, and the Yellow Hydraulic Motor is in Standby

30. Which Spoilers are operated by the green hydraulic system?
a. Spoilers 1, 3, 5 and 7
b. Spoilers 1, 2, 7 and 8
c. Spoilers 2, 4, 6 and 8

c. Spoilers 2, 4, 6 and 8

31. Which spoiler are used for the Roll Function?
a. Spoilers 1 to 8
b. Spoilers 2 to 8
c. Spoilers 3 to 8

c. Spoilers 3 to 8

32. When does the Aileron Droop Function take place?
a. As soon a s the Slat/Flap lever is place in Position "1" or more
b. As soon a s the Slat/Flap lever is place in Position "2" or more
c. As soon as the Slat/Flap lever is place in Position "3" or more

a. As soon a s the Slat/Flap lever is place in Position "1" or more

33. Which components make up the Backup Electrical System?
a. Two Backup Power Supply Units and Two Backup Control Modules
b. Two Backup Power Supply Units and One Backup Control Module
c. One Backup Power Supply Units and One Backup Control Module

b. Two Backup Power Supply Units and One Backup Control Module

SLATS & FLAPS

34. How are the Slats and Flaps controlled and monitored?
a. By a single Slat/Flap Control Computer
b. By two Slat/Flap Control Computers
c. By three Slat/Flap Control Computers

b. By two Slat/Flap Control Computers

35. How is the SLAT PCU Driven?
a. By an Electric Motor and the Yellow Hydraulic System
b. By an Electric Motor and the Green Hydraulic System
c. By the Yellow and the Green Hydraulic Systems

b. By an Electric Motor and the Green Hydraulic System

36. In the Slat System, how many Droop Nose and Geared Rotary Actuator are there?
a. Two Droop Nose Actuators and fourteen Geared Rotary Actuators
b. Four Droop Nose Actuators and twelve Geared Rotary Actuators
c. Six Droop Nose Actuators and ten Geared Rotary Actuators

b. Four Droop Nose Actuators and twelve Geared Rotary Actuators

37. With the Slat/Flap configuration at 1+F, at what speed will the Flap automatically be retracted?
a. When the CAS reached 152 Kts.
b. When the CAS reached 182 Kts.
c. When the CAS reached 212 Kts.

c. When the CAS reached 212 Kts.

38. How is the FLAP PCU Driven?
a. By an Electric Motor and the Yellow Hydraulic System
b. By an Electric Motor and the Green Hydraulic System
c. By the Yellow and the Green Hydraulic Systems

c. By the Yellow and the Green Hydraulic Systems

39. Which is the correct statement when describing the SLAT system Wing Tip Brakes?
a. The Slat Wing Tip Brakes are hydraulically supplied only
b. The Slat Wing Tip Brakes are electrically supplied only
c. The Slat Wing Tip Brakes are electrically and hydraulically supplied

b. The Slat Wing Tip Brakes are electrically supplied only

Back to Home

WATER & WASTE

LANDING GEAR

WHEELS & BRAKES

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

FLIGHT CONTROLS

SLATS & FLAPS