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RR TRENT 900



ENGINE NACELLE



a. Vertical, Side and Torsion Loads

Which loads does the Aft Engine Mount Carry

b. On the right-hand Fan Cowl Door

Where is the Oil Access Door Panel Located

c. Electrically

How are the Exhaust/Thrust Reverse Cowls operated to Opened and Closed

I LOST CONNECTION HERE FOR A BIT!!!!



ENGINE



a. An eight stage IP compressor driven by a signal stage IP turbine

What is the make up of the IP Rotor (N2)

a. LP and IP Counter Clockwise, HP Clockwise

In which direction do the LP, IP and HP Rotors turn (As viewed from the rear)

b. STA 30

Which Station Number represents the exit from the HP Compressor

FUEL SYSTEM



c. Three Pumps

How many fuel pumps are housed in the Fuel Pump Assembly

a. 2250 psid

At what pressure does the Full Flow relief valve open at, to relieve the HP pump outlet pressure back to the inlet

c. N1 or N2 Overspeed

Which of the following will cause the Protection Torque Motor to operate

FADEC AND EIPM



b. The EEC and the EMU

Which engine mounted units make up the FADEC system

a. With Green Stripes

How is the EEC Channel B harnesses colour coded

a. Two airframe 115 VAC supplies through the ElPM control logic function

With the Engine shut down, what power supply is used to power the EEC

ENGINE PROTECTION SYSTEMS



b. The EEC will shut down the engine

What happens if the EEC detects an N1 or N2 Overspeed

b. The Flight Control Primary Computer

For a Thrust Control Malfunction, which RU provides the signal to allow the EEC to shut down the engine

b. The EEC will shut down the engine

What happens if the EEC detects a Turbine Overspeed

ENGINE INDICATING



c. N2, N3 and FF

Which secondary engine parameters are displayed on the System Display

a. Engines 2 and 3

Which Throttle Control Levers have reverse levers fitted

a. Between the Idle Stop and the MCT Detent

With one engine shut down, what is the throttle lever operating range for the A/THR system on the other three engines

IGNITION AND STARTING



c. The EEC alternates between "A" and "B"

Which ignition system is used for automatic engine starting on the ground

b. At 25% N3 Speed

During a ground Automatic Start, when does the EEC introduce Fuel and Ignition

a. Electrically Controlled, Pneumatically Operated

How is the Starter Air Valve controlled and operated

ENGINE AIR SYSTEM



b. Three are installed

How many HP 3 Bleed valve are installed

a. OPEN

What is the position of the VIGV/VSVs when the engine is shut down

a. All OPEN

What is the Spring-loaded position of the IP and HP Bleed Valves

ENGINE THRUST CONTROL AND ENGINE MASTER CONTROL



c. Turbofan Power Ratio

What is the Normal operating mode for the engine

c. A/THR is automatically engaged active and commands the TOGA thrust mode

What is the result of an Alpha Floor Detection

a. Engaged but not active

What is the Auto Thrust Mode during Take-Off

ENGINE THRUST REVERSE



b. The Upper Actuators

Which of the Translating Cowl actuators are fitted with the Primary Locks

b. From the PDU to the Centre Actuator

How is power from the Power Drive Unit (DU) transferred to the Translating Cowls

b. 270 VDC

What power supply is used to release the Power Drive Unit Brake

ENGINE OIL SYSTEM



b. A Single pressure pump and nine scavenge pumps

What is the make up of the Oil Pump Unit

c. 13 psid

At what pressure does the Oil Scavenge Filter Differential Pressure Switch Operate at

a. Nine are installed

How many scavenge pumps are installed in the Oil Pump Unit

INTERFACES



ATA 24 - ELECTRICAL POWER



c. 150 KVA, 115 VAC, 3 Phase

What is the rated output of the VFGs

ATA 36 - PNEUMATICS



b. Three

How many Crossbleed valves are fitted

ATA 26 - FIRE PROTECTION



b. The VFG is de-energised, The FCV closes and the Engine Fuel LP Valve closes

Which of the following occurs when an ENG/FIRE P/BSW is pushed

ATA 30 - ICE AND RAIN



a. Monitoring of Engine 1 and control of Engine 3 Anti-Ice

Regarding the Engine Anti-Ice, what are the functions of the Anti-Ice Control Unit 2 Channel B